Disclaimer: I'm not a tax guy, but this seems to apply to your situation.
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S4. If Taxpayer A and Taxpayer B wanted to sell the home that Taxpayer B owned when they got married, and Taxpayer A had not owned a home within the past three years, could they qualify as a first-time homebuyer for the credit even though Taxpayer B would not qualify?

A. No. The purchase date determines whether a taxpayer is a first-time homebuyer. Since Taxpayer B had ownership interest in a principal residence within the prior three years, neither taxpayer may take the first-time homebuyer credit. Section 36(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code requires that the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse not have an ownership interest in a principal residence within the prior three years from the date of purchase. Taxpayer A may not take the credit even if he filed on a separate return.